Monday, January 25, 2021
So many questions about Balaam
Monday, September 28, 2020
Where is Cushan-Rishataim from?
In my previous post, I quoted Barry Webb's comical survey of origin suggestions for the foreign king who subjected Israel to slavery for eight years:
Cushan-rishathaim has been variously identified as a Babylonian Cassite (cf. Gen. 10:8), a Nubian, an Edomite, an Asiatic usurper in Egypt (Malamat), a Midianite (cf. Num. 12:1; Hab. 3:7), a chieftain of a tribe related to the Midianites who had migrated north and settled in Syria (Kaufmann), a surviving chieftain of the southern Judean hills (Boling), and, more recently, an Aramean adventurer from the great west bend of the upper Euphrates (Kitchen).
Barry G. Webb, The Book of Judges, New International Commentary on the Old Testament. Accordance electronic ed. (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 2012), 159.
As I've been working on it a bit more, I doesn't seem quite so intractable a problem. Let me tell you why.
We are told two things about this king's origin. First, at the beginning of the episode:
3:8b And he sold them into the hands of Cushan-Rishataim, king of Aram-Naharaim
And then at the end of the episode:
3:10d And Yhwh gave Cushan-Rishataim the king of Aram into his hand
It seems the main difficulties with describing him as an Aramean seems to be the spatial dislocation. Aram is north of Israel (roughly modern south-west Syria), while from chapter 1 we know that Othniel is in the south of Israel, linked to the tribe of Judah, and these are pretty-much as far away as can be.
However there are a couple of things worth noting. The first is the exceptional circumstances. In chapter 1 Othniel was called to step up in order to defeat a city and thereby to gain a wife. In chapter 3 however the Spirit is at work. We know from elsewhere that the Spirit may dislocate people (see the farcical episode in 1 Kings 18), so why not?!
The second thing worth noting is that, even if we don't know what Aram-Naharaim refers to (v8), we do know where Aram (v10) is. We also know what Naharaim means - it means "pair or rivers", with -aim the dual-form ending, and nahar meaning river. And we also know that in Aram there are two rivers, described by Naaman in 2 Kings 5:12:
Are not Abana and Pharpar, the rivers of Damascus, better than all the waters of Israel? Couldn’t I wash in them and be cleansed?” So he turned and went off in a rage.
Now, I had a look on google maps and they're not readily apparent. You have to know what you're looking for and zoom in. A lot. They're two rivers which don't seem to come from or go anywhere - they just peter out as far as I can tell. Today they're called (respectively) the Barada and Awaj rivers, with the Barada flowing (when it does flow) through the heart of Damascus; the Awaj at its closest point is 13km or so south of the Barada.
Image made using Accordance Bible Software.
Rivers are the thin blue lines with the red words describing them.
Abana is the more northern river, Pharpar the more southern.
So I don't know if I've solved a riddle, or simply added yet another to the long list of suggestions, but it seems like it makes sense.
Update:
Here's a clearer image from research gate. It seems they come from springs and end up in lakes, which I assume fill and dry up, depending on the season.
Thursday, September 21, 2017
Where John was baptising
The introduction to John the baptiser in the narrative proper of John's Gospel situates us in a place with two descriptions.
- Bethany
- On the other side of the Jordan
So he could be there, except the rest of John 1-2 situates us in Galilee; he meets his first disciples by the sea of Galilee, he goes to a wedding in Galilee, he 'goes down' to Capernaum in Galilee and so on.
Furthermore, at the end of the 'Book of Signs' (the first half of John), Jesus is at the place where John had been baptising (10.40) and takes several days to walk to Bethany (11.17).
How do we solve all this?
D. A. Carson (The Gospel According to John, Pillar New Testament Commentary. Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1991, pp 146-7) suggests that John (the author) has deliberately misspelled a region in Israel's north-east called Batanea (Βετανια) as Bethany (Βηθανια). Batanea is in Galilee, it is across the Jordan, it is pretty wild, and it is several days walk from Bethany.
Currently this area is in the Golan Heights, an area of Syria occupied by Israel for the last couple of decades.
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| Arik Bridge over the Jordan River. Photo by Ilya Viten (Google Maps) |
- The words sound quite similar - it's only two letters - 'ηθ' (ith) rather than 'ατ' (at).
- There's a nice symmetry to the book - the first half of the book begins and ends at Bethany/Batanea, with Jesus being recognised there at the beginning, and then performing his greatest sign at the end - the raising of Lazarus.
At Bethany in the (Galilean) north, John the Baptist confesses Jesus as “God’s lamb”; at Bethany in the (Judean) south, Jesus nears his crucifixion.In conclusion, it's possible, though not provable, that when John wrote about John baptising Bethany in Galilee on the other side of the Jordan, he was expecting his readers to know that he was discussing Batanea, but drawing a strong link to Bethany. As readers we should be drawing those links too - from the beginning to the end.

